Brayton cycle
I have used the two efficiency formulae to solve the following problem, but I get a different answer from each:
If I use the 1 - (1/PR^1.4-1/1) I get approx. 40%
If I use Work_nett/Heat_in I get approx. 27%
I can't figure why there is a discrepancy, is it do with the isentropic efficiencies of the compressor and turbine?
Many thanks
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Thanks.